Model Test Paper 9

General Study Paper II

Some studies of temperatures around the world have found that global warming is speeding up and claim that the 1980s and 1990s were the hottest decades for the past 400 years. The average global temperature has gone up by 0.8°C in the past 125 years, from 18°C. Some areas of the Arctic across Russia and Canada have had an increase double that of the global average increase, shooting their temperatures up to 13°C. The changes resulting from shorter, warmer winters are affecting all aspects of life for the indigenous Inuit people. The ice melts faster restricting access to hunting sites and making it harder to find the basic building material for the igloos widely used on hunting trips. This is causing difficulty for the Inuit, as hunting is their primary food source.

1. The Inuit of the Arctic region are building fewer igloos on hunting trips

(a) True
(b) False
(c) Cannot say
(d)

2. Studies have found that the temperature has doubled in some areas of Canada

(a) True
(b) False
(c) Cannot say
(d)

3. The INUIT people obtain all their food from hunting

(a) True
(b) False
(c) Cannot say
(d)
In an effort to preserve fishing stocks, for many years the European Union has used a quota system to regulate the amount of fish that can be taken out of the North Sea. This involves defining the tonnage of the various types of North Sea fish that each EU member country can take. As soon as the catch is landed - but not before - fishermen can be fined for landing more fish at their port than their quota permits. Each year fisherman dump thousands of tonnes of fish back into the sea either because they have reached their quota and don’t want to be fined or because the fish are too small to be caught legally. Some environmental groups feel that existing approaches are not working since these fish are already dead and throwing them back serves no real purpose. They believe that other steps need to be taken to conserve North Sea fishing stocks and avoid depletion.

4. Fish stocks in the North Sea are nearly exhausted

(a) True
(b) False
(c) Cannot say
(d)

5. Some environmental groups think new conservation methods are called for

(a) True
(b) False
(c) Cannot say
(d)

6. Fishermen can be fined for catching too many fish

(a) True
(b) False
(c) Cannot say
(d)
Biofuels are now being used worldwide and supporters claim that they are a sustainable, renewable and cleaner alternative to traditional fossil fuels like coal and petroleum, supplies of which are becoming exhausted. Biofuels are increasingly used in the transportation sector. The main producers of biofuels are in Asia, Europe and America. They can be produced from any carbon source including landfill gasses and recycled vegetable oil but most of the biofuels produced around the world is derived from photosynthetic plants. The two main types of plant used in production are those high in sugar, which are fermented to produce ethanol, and those high in oil, which have the oil extracted and heated to reduce viscosity. Burning biofuels releases the same amount of CO2 that the plants took out of the environment when growing so there is no net increase in levels of atmospheric carbon.

7. Biofuels can be used to power aircraft

(a) True
(b) False
(c) Cannot say
(d)

8. Plants high in oil can have their oil heated to make it flow more freely

(a) True
(b) False
(c) Cannot say
(d)

9. Ethanol can be produced from photosynthetic plants with high oil content

(a) True
(b) False
(c) Cannot say
(d)
Many businesses now recognise that there are wide-ranging benefits to be gained from offering their workforce flexible working arrangements. These arrangements can include being able to work from home, job sharing, part time working and being able to choose when to complete agreed hours, for example through working fewer but longer days, or working flexitime. Employees able to adopt flexible working are better able to balance work and family commitments and are therefore happier at work, experiencing greater job satisfaction. They are also more motivated and less likely to leave. For businesses, they reap the benefits through productivity increases, and greater cost-effectiveness. Staff recruitment costs are not insignificant to businesses. Customers can benefit too as businesses are better able to react quickly to changes in the market. All employees now have a statutory right to request flexible working arrangements. The law extends as far as insisting employers consider and respond to these requests within a predefined timescale.

10. Parents able to adopt flexible working experience better job satisfaction because they can better balance time between work and family commitments

(a) True
(b) False
(c) Cannot say
(d)

11. Employees have a legal right to flexible working arrangements if they want them

(a) True
(b) False
(c) Cannot say
(d)

12. Employers can reduce recruitment costs through introducing flexible working hours

(a) True
(b) False
(c) Cannot say
(d)

12. Based on the average costs, in 2006 what percentage of the total budget was spent on investigating and solving Robberies and muggings?

(a) 28.2%
(b) 26%
(c) 3.8%
(d) 2.6%

13. Which car had the greatest difference in performance on the open road compared with its performance in the city?

(a) Toyota Prius
(b) Hyundai Sonata
(c) Kia Rondo
(d) Lamborghini

14. If the Toyota Prius travelled 60 kilometres in the city, how many kilometers in the city would the Mercedes Benz travel on the same amount of petrol?

(a) 200
(b) 25.3
(c) 24
(d) 18

15. The cost of petrol used by the Kia Rondo is 95p per litre. How much would it cost to complete a journey of 190km in a Kia Rondo if 36 kilometres of the journey is in the city?

(a) GBP 17.10
(b) GBP 18.05
(c) GBP 19.50
(d) GBP 20.05

16. The cost of petrol used by the Hyundai Sonata is 95p per litre. The cost of petrol used by the Lamborghini Murcielago is 101p per litre.
How much more would it cost to complete a 210 km journey on the open road in the Lamborghini than it would in the Hyundai?

(a) GBP 42.20
(b) GBP 24.85
(c) GBP 24.25
(d) GBP 21.10

17. In millions of US$, what was the average (mean) amount donated by the six largest donors of the OECD Development Assistance Committee?

(a) 7,126
(b) 5,938.33
(c) 4,271.67
(d) 2,319.50

18. Which of these six countries donated the most per capita?

(a) United Kingdom
(b) Canada
(c) Norway
(d) New Zealand

19. The total amount donated by all member countries of the OECD Development Assistance Committee was $US 79,191 million. If a pie chart is drawn for all countries, what would be the angle (to the nearest degree) representing the donation of the United Kingdom?

(a) 9
(b) 12
(c) 30
(d) 67

20. For which age group has the percentage of people who smoke more than halved between 1978 and 2005?

(a) 25 - 34
(b) 35 - 49
(c) 50 - 59
(d) 60+

21. Which of the following age groups had the greatest percentage decline between 1998 and 2005?

(a) 20 -24
(b) 25 - 34
(c) 35 - 49
(d) 50 - 59

22. Assume that the percentages who smoked for each individual age within each age group were constant e.g. for the age group 16 – 19 in 1978, assume 34% of people of age 16 smoked, 34% of people of age 17 smoked, 34% of people of age 18 smoked and 34% of people of age 19 smoked. For those people born in 1956, what percentage on average gave up smoking between 1978 and 1998?

(a) 14%
(b) 12%
(c) 9%
(d) 8%

23. By expressing the decrease as a percentage of the 1978 figures, which of the following age groups showed the least improvement between 1978 and 1988?

(a) 16 – 19
(b) 20 -24
(c) 25 - 34
(d) 50 - 59

24. Joe worked part time for x hours and earned y dollars. How much does he earn if he works z hours?

(a) yz/x
(b) z/(xy)
(c) xyz
(d) zx/y

25. In a science test, a class of 30 students had an average of 80. The 20 girls in the class had an average of 85. What is the average of the 10 boys in the class?

(a) 60
(b) 70
(c) 80
(d) 85
A meteor stream is composed of dust particles that have been ejected from a parent comet at a variety of velocities. These particles follow the same orbit as the parent comet, but due to their differing velocities they slowly gain on or fall behind the disintegrating comet until a shroud of dust surrounds the entire cometary orbit. Astronomers have hypothesized that a meteor stream should broaden with time as the dust particles’ individual orbits are perturbed by planetary gravitational fields. A recent computer-modeling experiment tested this hypothesis by tracking the influence of planetary gravitation over a projected 5,000-year period on the positions of a group of hypothetical dust particles. In the model, the particles were randomly distributed throughout a computer simulation of the orbit of an actual meteor stream, the Geminid. The researcher found, as expected, that the computer-model stream broadened with time. Conventional theories, however, predicted that the distribution of particles would be increasingly dense toward the center of a meteor stream. Surprisingly, the computer-model meteor stream gradually came to resemble a thick-walled, hollow pipe.

Whenever the Earth passes through a meteor stream, a meteor shower occurs. Moving at a little over 1,500,000 miles per day around its orbit, the Earth would take, on average, just over a day to cross the hollow, computer-model Geminid stream if the stream were 5,000 years old. Two brief periods of peak meteor activity during the shower would be observed, one as the Earth entered the thick-walled “pipe” and one as it exited. There is no reason why the Earth should always pass through the stream’s exact center, so the time interval between the two bursts of activity would vary from one year to the next.

Has the predicted twin-peaked activity been observed for the actual yearly Geminid meteor shower? The Geminid data between 1970 and 1979 show just such a bifurcation, a secondary burst of meteor activity being clearly visible at an average of 19 hours (1,200,000 miles) after the first burst. The time intervals between the bursts suggest the actual Geminid stream is about 3,000 years old.

26. The primary focus of the passage is on which of the following?

(a) Comparing two scientific theories and contrasting the predictions that each would make concerning a natural phenomenon
(b) Describing a new theoretical model and noting that it explains the nature of observations made of a particular natural phenomenon
(c) Evaluating the results of a particular scientific experiment and suggesting further areas for research
(d) Explaining how two different natural phenomena are related and demonstrating a way to measure them

27. According to the passage, which of the following is an accurate statement concerning meteor streams?

(a) Meteor streams and comets start out with similar orbits, but only those of meteor streams are perturbed by planetary gravitation.
(b) Meteor streams grow as dust particles are attracted by the gravitational fields of comets.
(c) Meteor streams are composed of dust particles derived from comets.
(d) Comets may be composed of several kinds of materials, while meteor streams consist only of large dust particles.

28. The author states that the research described in the first paragraph was undertaken in order to

(a) determine the age of an actual meteor stream
(b) identify the various structural features of meteor streams
(c) explore the nature of a particularly interesting meteor stream
(d) test the hypothesis that meteor streams become broader as they age

29. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following would most probably be observed during the Earth’s passage through a meteor stream if the conventional theories were correct?

(a) Meteor activity would gradually increase to a single, intense peak, and then gradually decline.
(b) Meteor activity would be steady throughout the period of the meteor shower.
(c) Meteor activity would rise to a peak at the beginning and at the end of the meteor shower.
(d) Random bursts of very high meteor activity would be interspersed with periods of very little activity.

30. According to the passage, why do the dust particles in a meteor stream eventually surround a comet’s original orbit?

(a) They are ejected by the comet at differing velocities.
(b) Their orbits are uncontrolled by planetary gravitational fields.
(c) They become part of the meteor stream at different times.
(d) Their velocity slows over time.

31. The passage suggests that which of the following is a prediction concerning meteor streams that can be derived from both the conventional theories mentioned in and the new computer-derived theory?

(a) Dust particles in a meteor stream will usually be distributed evenly throughout any cross section of the steam.
(b) The orbits of most meteor streams should cross the orbit of the Earth at some point and give rise to a meteor shower.
(c) Over time the distribution of dust in a meteor stream will usually become denser at the outside edges of the stream than at the center.
(d) Meteor showers caused by older meteor streams should be, on average, longer in duration than those caused by very young meteor streams.

32. It can be inferred from the last paragraph of the passage that which of the following must be true of the Earth as it orbits the Sun?

(a) Most meteor streams it encounters are more than 2,000 years old.
(b) When passing through a meteor stream, it usually passes near to the stream’s center.
(c) It crosses the Geminid meteor stream once every year.
(d) It usually takes over a day to cross the actual Geminid meteor stream.

33. Which of the following is an assumption underlying the last sentence of the passage?

(a) In each of the years between 1970 and 1979, the Earth took exactly 19 hours to cross the Geminid meteor stream.
(b) The comet associated with the Geminid meteor stream has totally disintegrated.
(c) The computer-model Geminid meteor stream provides an accurate representation of the development of the actual Geminid stream.
(d) The Geminid meteor stream has not broadened as rapidly as the conventional theories would have predicted.

34.

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

35.

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

36.

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

37.

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

38.

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

39.

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

40.

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

41.

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

42.

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

43.

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

44.

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
It is well known that biological changes at the molecular level have morphogenetic consequences, consequences affecting the formation and differentiation of tissues and organs. It is superfluous to point out that gene mutations and disturbances of the bio-synthetic processes in the embryo may result in abnormalities in the morphology (structure) of an organism. However, whereas much is known about causes and consequences at the molecular level, and in spite of an enormous accumulation of chemical and morphological data on embryos of various kinds, our understanding of how genes control morphogenesis is still far from complete. Perhaps one reason for this is that molecular biologists and morphologists speak different languages. Whereas the former speak about messenger-RNA and conformational changes of protein molecules, the latter speak of ectoderms, hypoblasts, and neural crests.

One solution to this predicament is to try to find some phenomena relevant to morphogenesis which both the molecular biologist and the morphologist can understand and discuss. As morphogenesis must be basically the result of changes in behavior of the individual cells, it seems logical to ask morphologists to describe the morphogenetic events observed in terms of changes in cellular contact, changes in the rate of proliferation of cells, or similar phenomena. Once this is done, it may be appropriate to ask questions about the molecular background for these changes. One may, for instance, ask whether variations in cell contact reflect alterations in the populations of molecules at the cell surface, or one may inquire about the molecular basis for the increased cell mobility involved in cell dispersion.

45. The author’s primary purpose is to

(a) outline a procedure and discuss possible applications
(b) evaluate an experiment in terms of its applicability to medical research
(c) propose a method for curing specific genetic disorders
(d) explain a problem and suggest a solution for it

46. The author states that research into the genetic control of morphogenesis has been impeded by

(a) an incomplete understanding of biomolecular reactions that are highly complex
(b) a lack of communication between scientists whose work could be complementary
(c) a reluctance on the part of morphologists to share data with molecular biologists
(d) a lack of research in the area of morphology

47. The major objective of the author’s proposal is to

(a) provide a plan for increasing knowledge about the influence of genes on morphogenesis
(b) devise a technique for proving that abnormalities in morphology result from gene mutations
(c) improve the procedures for organizing chemical and morphological data
(d) increase the accuracy of measurements of cell populations and cell mobility

48. It can be inferred from the passage that some cells that have been isolated from an organism have the ability to

(a) control morphogenesis
(b) reform to make higher organisms
(c) reorganize to form clusters of cells
(d) regulate the transmission of light through the cell wall

49. It can be inferred from the passage that the study of the effects of genes on morphogenesis is best accomplished by observing

(a) intact developing embryos
(b) adult sea urchins
(c) isolated living cells
(d) groups of genetically mutated cells

50. According to the passage, it is difficult to study cells in most intact embryos because

(a) morphogenetic events cannot be isolated
(b) embryos die quickly
(c) individual cells are difficult to see
(d) individual cells reaggregate too quickly

51. Which of the following sequences best describes the author’s suggestion for future research on morphogenesis?

(a) Accumulation of data, simplification of language, explanation of morphogenesis
(b) Dispersion of cells, evaluation of cell activity, development of an explanatory hypothesis
(c) Classification of cell types, separation of cell, observation of cell activity
(d) Observation of cell development, description of cell behavior, explanation at the molecular level

52. The tone of the author’s discussion of the difference in the language used by morphologists and that used by molecular biologists is one of

(a) indifference
(b) neutrality
(c) derision
(d) approbation

53. 7 9 66 12 14 66 17

(a) 19 66
(b) 66 19
(c) 19 22
(d) 20 66

54. 3 5 35 10 12 35 17

(a) 22 35
(b) 35 19
(c) 19 35
(d) 19 24

55. 36 31 29 24 22 17 15

(a) 13 11
(b) 10 5
(c) 13 8
(d) 10 8

56. Which word does NOT belong with the others?

(a) core
(b) seeds
(c) pulp
(d) slice

57. Which word does NOT belong with the others

(a) unique
(b) beautiful
(c) rare
(d) exceptional

58. Which word does NOT belong with the others?

(a) biology
(b) chemistry
(c) theology
(d) zoology

59. Which word does NOT belong with the others?

(a) triangle
(b) circle
(c) oval
(d) sphere

60. Which word does NOT belong with the others?

(a) excite
(b) flourish
(c) prosper
(d) thrive

61. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.
hapllesh means cloudburst
srenchoch means pinball
resbosrench means ninepin
Which word could mean “cloud nine”?

(a) leshsrench
(b) ochhapl
(c) haploch
(d) haplresbo

62. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.
migenlasan means cupboard
lasanpoen means boardwalk
cuopdansa means pullman
Which word could mean “walkway”?

(a) poenmigen
(b) cuopeisel
(c) lasandansa
(d) poenforc

63. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.
morpirquat means birdhouse
beelmorpir means bluebird
beelclak means bluebell
Which word could mean “houseguest”?

(a) morpirhunde
(b) beelmoki
(c) quathunde
(d) clakquat

64. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.
slar means jump
slary means jumping
slarend means jumped
Which word could mean “playing”?

(a) clargslarend
(b) clargy
(c) ellaclarg
(d) slarmont

65. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.
briftamint means militant
uftonel means occupied
uftonalene means occupation
Which word could mean “occupant”?

(a) elbrifta
(b) uftonamint
(c) elamint
(d) briftalene
The logic problems 66 - 67 present you with three true statements: Fact 1, Fact 2, and Fact 3. Then, you are given three more statements (labeled I, II, and III), and you must determine which of these, if any, is also a fact. One or two of the statements could be true; all of the statements could be true; or none of the statements could be true. Choose your answer based solely on the information given in the first three facts.

66. Fact 1: All dogs like to run.
Fact 2: Some dogs like to swim.
Fact 3: Some dogs look like their masters.
If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a fact?
I. All dogs who like to swim look like their masters.
II. Dogs who like to swim also like to run.
III. Dogs who like to run do not look like their masters.

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) II and III only
(d) None of the statements is a known fact

67. Children are in pursuit of a dog whose leash has broken. James is directly behind the dog. Ruby is behind James. Rachel is behind Ruby. Max is ahead of the dog walking down the street in the opposite direction. As the children and dog pass, Max turns around and joins the pursuit. He runs in behind Ruby. James runs faster and is alongside the dog on the left. Ruby runs faster and is alongside the dog on the right. Which child is directly behind the dog?

(a) James
(b) Ruby
(c) Rachel
(d) Max

68. A box contains one of each of the bills: $1, $5, $10, $20, $50, and $100. If you randomly draw three bills, then what are the odds that the three bills add to $75?

(a) 1 in 120
(b) 1 in 60
(c) 1 in 20
(d) 1 in 30

69. You are running from 3 police officers and there are 5 possible caves to hide in. You hide in a random cave before the officers see you. Each of the officers chooses a random cave to search. More than one officer can search the same cave. If there is a 100% chance a cop will find you if he searches your cave, then what are the odds you will be found?

(a) 61 out of 125
(b) 11 out of 25
(c) 3 out of 5
(d) 47 out of 75

70. You randomly draw 3 cards from a standard 52-card deck. What are the odds that you draw 3 different suits?

(a) 169/425
(b) 13/25
(c) 3/8
(d) 109/331

71. A square has a side 5 centimeters shorter than the side of a second square. The area of the larger square is four times the area of the smaller square. Find the side of each square.

(a) 10, 5
(b) 11, 6
(c) 15, 10
(d) 20, 15

72. Find two numbers whose sum is 26 and whose product is 165.

(a) 12 and 14
(b) 10 and 16
(c) 11 and 15
(d) 13 and 13

73. The area of a rectangle is 15 square centimeters and the perimeter is 16 square centimeters. What are the dimensions of the rectangle?

(a) 3 and 5
(b) 1 and 15
(c) 7.5 and 2
(d) 3.75 and 4

74. The sum of two numbers is 20. The larger number is four less than twice the smaller number. What are the two numbers?

(a) 8, 12
(b) 10, 10
(c) 7, 13
(d) 6, 14

75. The hypotenuse of a right triangle is 2 centimeters more than the longer side of the triangle. The shorter side of the triangle is 7 centimeters less than the longer side. Find the length of the hypotenuse.

(a) 5
(b) 12
(c) 15
(d) 17

76. The sum on an odd integer and twice its consecutive is equal to equal to 3757. Find the number.

(a) 1250
(b) 1251
(c) 1252
(d) 1253

77. The sum of the first and third of three consecutive even integers is 131 less than three times the second integer. Find the three integers.

(a) 129, 131, 133
(b) 130, 131, 133
(c) 131, 133, 135
(d) 133, 135, 137

78. Find four consecutive even integers so that the sum of the first two added to twice the sum of the last two is equal to 742.

(a) 118, 120, 122, 124
(b) 120, 122, 124, 126
(c) 122, 124, 126, 128
(d) 124, 126, 128, 130

79. When the smallest of three consecutive odd integers is added to four times the largest, it produces a result 729 more than four times the middle integer. Find the numbers

(a) 717, 719, 721
(b) 719, 721, 722
(c) 721, 723, 725
(d) 723, 725, 727

80. The original price of a shirt was $20. It was decreased to $15 . What is the percent decrease of the price of this shirt.

(a) 10%
(b) 15%
(c) 20%
(d) 25%

TOTAL

PrelimsModelTests.com