Model Test Paper 11

General Study Paper II

Coral reefs are one of the most fragile, biologically complex, and diverse marine ecosystems on Earth. This ecosystem is one of the fascinating paradoxes of the biosphere: how do clear, and thus nutrient-poor, waters support such prolific and productive communities? Part of the answer lies within the tissues of the corals themselves. Symbiotic cells of algae known as zooxanthellae carry out photosynthesis using the metabolic wastes of the coral thereby producing food for themselves, for their corals, hosts, and even for other members of the reef community. This symbiotic process allows organisms in the reef community to use sparse nutrient resources efficiently.

Unfortunately for coral reefs, however, a variety of human activities are causing worldwide degradation of shallow marine habitats by adding nutrients to the water. Agriculture, slash-and-burn land clearing, sewage disposal and manufacturing that creates waste by-products all increase nutrient loads in these waters. Typical symptoms of reef decline are destabilized herbivore populations and an increasing abundance of algae and filter-feeding animals. Declines in reef communities are consistent with observations that nutrient input is increasing in direct proportion to growing human populations, thereby threatening reef communities sensitive to subtle changes in nutrient input to their waters.

1. The passage is primarily concerned with

	(a) describing the effects of human activities on algae in coral reefs
	(b) explaining how human activities are posing a threat to coral reef communities
	(c) discussing the process by which coral reefs deteriorate in nutrient-poor waters
	(d) explaining how coral reefs produce food for themselves

2.The passage suggests which of the following about coral reef communities?

	(a) Coral reef communities may actually be more likely to thrive in waters that are relatively low in nutrients.
	(b) The nutrients on which coral reef communities thrive are only found in shallow waters.
	(c) Human population growth has led to changing ocean temperatures, which threatens coral reef communities.
	(d) The growth of coral reef communities tends to destabilize underwater herbivore populations.

3. The author refers to “filter-feeding animals” in order to

	(a) provide an example of a characteristic sign of reef deterioration
	(b) explain how reef communities acquire sustenance for survival
	(c) identify a factor that helps herbivore populations thrive
	(d) indicate a cause of decreasing nutrient input in waters that reefs inhabit

4. According to the passage, which of the following is a factor that is threatening the survival of coral reef communities?

	(a) The waters they inhabit contain few nutrient resources.
	(b) A decline in nutrient input is disrupting their symbiotic relationship with zooxanthellae.
	(c) The degraded waters of their marine habitats have reduced their ability to carry out photosynthesis.
	(d) Waste by-products result in an increase in nutrient input to reef communities.

5. It can be inferred from the passage that the author describes coral reef communities as paradoxical most likely for which of the following reasons?

	(a) They are thriving even though human activities have depleted the nutrients in their environment.
	(b) They are able to survive in spite of an overabundance of algae inhabiting their waters.
	(c) They are able to survive in an environment with limited food resources.
	(d) Their metabolic wastes contribute to the degradation of the waters that they inhabit.

New observations about the age of some globular clusters in our Milky Way galaxy have cast doubt on a long-held theory about how the galaxy was formed. The Milky Way contains about 125 globular clusters (compact groups of anywhere from several tens of thousands to perhaps a million stars) distributed in a roughly spherical halo around the galactic nucleus. The stars in these clusters are believed to have been born during the formation of the galaxy, and so may be considered relics of the original galactic nebula, holding vital clues to the way the formation took place.

The conventional theory of the formation of the galaxy contends that roughly 12 to 13 billion years ago the Milky Way formed over a relatively short time (about 200 million years) when a spherical cloud of gas collapsed under the pressure of its own gravity into a disc surrounded by a halo. Such a rapid formation of the galaxy would mean that all stars in the halo should be very nearly the same age.

However, the astronomer Michael Bolte has found considerable variation in the ages of globular clusters. One of the clusters studied by Bolte is 2 billions years older than most other clusters in the galaxy, while another is 2 billion years younger. A colleague of Bolte contends that the cluster called Palomar 12 is 5 billion years younger than most other globular clusters.

To explain the age differences among the globular clusters, astronomers are taking a second look at “renegade” theories. One such newly fashionable theory, first put forward by Richard Larson in the early 1970’s, argues that the halo of the Milky Way formed over a period of a billion or more years as hundreds of small gas clouds drifted about, collided, lost orbital energy, and finally collapsed into a centrally condensed elliptical system. Larson’s conception of a “lumpy and turbulent” protogalaxy is complemented by computer modeling done in the 1970’s by mathematician Alan Toomre, which suggests that closely interacting spiral galaxies could lose enough orbital energy to merge into a single galaxy.

6. The passage is primarily concerned with discussing

	(a) the importance of determining the age of globular clusters in assessing when the Milky Way galaxy was formed
	(b) recent changes in the procedure used by astronomers to study the formation of the Milky Way galaxy
	(c) current disputes among astronomers regarding the size and form of the Milky Way galaxy
	(d) the effect of new discoveries regarding globular clusters on theories about the formation of the Milky Way galaxy

7. According to the passage, one way in which Larson’s theory and the conventional theory of the formation of the Milky Way galaxy differs is in their assessment of the

	(a) amount of time it took to form the galaxy
	(b) size of the galaxy immediately after its formation
	(c) particular gas involved in the formation of the galaxy
	(d) importance of the age of globular clusters in determining how the galaxy was formed

8. Which of the following, if true, would be most useful in supporting the conclusions drawn from recent observations about globular clusters?

	(a) There is firm evidence that the absolute age of the Milky Way galaxy is between 10 and 17 billion years.
	(b) A study of over 1,500 individual stars in the halo of the Milky Way galaxy indicates wide discrepancies in there ages.
	(c) A survey reveals that a galaxy close to the Milky Way galaxy contains globular clusters of ages close to the age of Palomar 12.
	(d) Space probes indicate that the stars in the Milky Way galaxy are composed of several different types of gas.

9. If Bolte and his colleague are both correct, it can be inferred that the globular cluster Palomar 12 is approximately

	(a) 5 billion years younger than any other cluster in the galaxy
	(b) the same age as most other clusters in the galaxy
	(c) 7 billion years younger than another cluster in the galaxy
	(d) 12 billion years younger than most other clusters in the galaxy

10. The passage suggests that Toomre’s work complements Larson’s theory because it

	(a) specifies more precisely the time frame proposed by Larson
	(b) subtly alters Larson’s theory to make it more plausible
	(c) supplements Larson’s hypothesis with direct astronomical observations
	(d) provides theoretical support for the ideas suggested by Larson

11. Which of the following most accurately states a finding of Bolte’s research, as described in the passage?

	(a) The globular clusters in the Milky Way galaxy are 2 billion years older than predicted by the conventional theory.
	(b) The ages of at least some globular clusters in the Milky Way galaxy differ by at least 4 billion years.
	(c) One of the globular clusters in the Milky Way galaxy is 5 billion years younger than most others.
	(d) The globular clusters in the Milky Way galaxy are significantly older than the individual stars in the halo.

12. The author of the passage puts the word “renegade” in quotation marks most probably in order to

	(a) indicate that the theories in question are no longer as unconventional as they once seemed
	(b) emphasize the lack of support for the theories in question
	(c) contrast the controversial quality of the theories in question with the respectable character of their formulators
	(d) generate skepticism about the theories in question

While most forms of discrimination in the workplace have been outlawed, discrimination or bias against some employees seeking career advancement still happens. This discrimination is both unwritten and unacknowledged. A ‘Glass Ceiling’ is the term used to describe this type of discrimination and refers to the invisible barrier that people hit when they try to progress beyond a certain level in some businesses and organisations. Originally coined to illustrate the hidden use of sexual discrimination against women in professional environments, it is now commonly used to describe any form of discrimination, such as racism or ageism, which prevents qualified and experienced employees reaching the higher levels of their organisation. Many reports and studies now suggest that change is happening and that cracks are beginning to appear in the glass. The studies also claim however that change is happening slowly and that the cracks are small.

13. A ‘Glass Ceiling’ specifically describes sexual discrimination in the modern workplace

	(a) True
	(b) Fasle
	(c) Cannot say
	(d)

14. Positive changes are occurring regarding discrimination in the workplace

	(a) True
	(b) Fasle
	(c) Cannot say
	(d)

15. The ‘Glass Ceiling’ can prevent qualified people from getting to the top of their field

	(a) True
	(b) Fasle
	(c) Cannot say
	(d)

The Flying Shuttle and the Spinning Jenny are two early 18th century British inventions that revolutionised the textile industry. They increased productivity by automating some key processes thereby reducing the amount of manual operation needed. The Flying Shuttle, for example, raised the productivity of manual weaving by around 50 percent by returning the shuttle automatically meaning that one worker could do the work that previously had been done by two. The Spinning Jenny invented a couple of decades later similarly automated processes allowing one spinner to do more. Reducing the amount of manual intervention needed for these tasks meant that they were more suitable for adaptation to mechanical power such as waterpower and steam which had become the new means of propulsion shortly before their invention.

16. Automating the production process of weaving was a necessary precursor to the application of steam power

	(a) True
	(b) False
	(c) Cannot say
	(d)

17. The two inventions led to job losses in the textile industry

	(a) True
	(b) False
	(c) Cannot say
	(d)

18. Steam as a propulsion system was introduced into the textile industry after waterpower

	(a) True
	(b) False
	(c) Cannot say
	(d)

Proponents of recycling are adamant that we must preserve the world’s precious natural resources by reducing our consumption of new raw materials. They say that to accomplish this all we need to do is to reuse or recycle many materials that traditionally would be thrown away and end up in landfill sites. Many local authorities have designed and implemented full end-to-end recycling programmes. A critical factor in the success of any waste management and recycling programme is the ability to clearly communicate waste disposal and depositing policy to the public. The majority of people are willing to participate, but they are more likely to participate if they can easily understand what goes where. They are also less likely to make errors and put something in the wrong place, which can cause costly problems. Supporters claim that the more we recycle the less it costs, however some critics counterclaim that recycling actually consumes more resource than it saves and in the long run is doing more harm than good.

19. Recycling advocates are arguing that we must recycle all our waste to preserve the world’s natural resources

	(a) True
	(b) False
	(c) Cannot say
	(d)

20. Some people say that recycling is an inefficient use of resources

	(a) True
	(b) False
	(c) Cannot say
	(d)

21. Most of the public are reluctant to participate in recycling because they do not know what goes where

	(a) True
	(b) False
	(c) Cannot say
	(d)

22.

	(a) A
	(b) B
	(c) C
	(d) D

23.

	(a) A
	(b) B
	(c) C
	(d) D

24.

	(a) A
	(b) B
	(c) C
	(d) D

25.

	(a) A
	(b) B
	(c) C
	(d) D

26.

	(a) A
	(b) B
	(c) C
	(d) D

27.

	(a) A
	(b) B
	(c) C
	(d) D

28.

	(a) A
	(b) B
	(c) C
	(d) D

29.

	(a) A
	(b) B
	(c) C
	(d) D

30.

	(a) A
	(b) B
	(c) C
	(d) D

31. 10 20 25 35 40 50 55

	(a) 70 65
	(b) 60 70
	(c) 60 75
	(d) 65 70

32. 40 40 31 31 22 22 13

	(a) 13 4
	(b) 13 5
	(c) 4 13
	(d) 9 4

33. 17 17 34 20 20 31 23

	(a) 26 23
	(b) 34 20
	(c) 23 33
	(d) 23 28

34. 2 3 4 5 6 4 8

	(a) 9 10
	(b) 4 8
	(c) 10 4
	(d) 9 4

35. 61 57 50 61 43 36 61

	(a) 29 61
	(b) 27 20
	(c) 31 61
	(d) 29 22

36. All spotted Gangles have long tails.
Short-haired Gangles always have short tails.
Long-tailed Gangles never have short hair.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

	(a) true
	(b) false
	(c) uncertain
	(d)

37. Battery X lasts longer than Battery Y.
Battery Y doesn’t last as long as Battery Z.
Battery Z lasts longer than Battery X.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

	(a) true
	(b) false
	(c) uncertain
	(d)

38. Martina is sitting in the desk behind Jerome.
Jerome is sitting in the desk behind Bryant.
Bryant is sitting in the desk behind Martina.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

	(a) true
	(b) false
	(c) uncertain
	(d)

39. Middletown is north of Centerville.
Centerville is east of Penfield.
Penfield is northwest of Middletown.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

	(a) true
	(b) false
	(c) uncertain
	(d)

40. Taking the train across town is quicker than taking the bus.
Taking the bus across town is slower than driving a car.
Taking the train across town is quicker than driving a car.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

	(a) true
	(b) false
	(c) uncertain
	(d)

41.

	(a) A
	(b) B
	(c) C
	(d) D

42.

	(a) A
	(b) B
	(c) C
	(d) D

43.

	(a) A
	(b) B
	(c) C
	(d) D

44.

	(a) A
	(b) B
	(c) C
	(d) D

45.

	(a) A
	(b) B
	(c) C
	(d) D

46.

	(a) A
	(b) B
	(c) C
	(d) D

47.

	(a) A
	(b) B
	(c) C
	(d) D

48.

	(a) A
	(b) B
	(c) C
	(d) D

49.

	(a) A
	(b) B
	(c) C
	(d) D

50.

	(a) A
	(b) B
	(c) C
	(d) D

51. A cube with edges 1/2 inch long is shown below. What is the length, in inches, of a diagonal that runs from one corner of the cube to the opposite corner?

	(a) 1/4
	(b) 3/4
	(c) 3/2
	(d)

52. Simplify the expression

2(-4a - 5b) - (8 + b) + b + (-2b + 4) - 5a

	(a) - 13a + 12b - 4
	(b) 13a - 12b - 4
	(c) - 13a - 12b - 4
	(d) - 13a + 12b - 4

53. Solve the equation

2(-3x - 5) - (8 - x) = -2(2x + 4) + 12

	(a) x = -12
	(b) x = 12
	(c) x = 22
	(d) x = -22

54. If x > -2, simplify the expression

2| x + 2 | - 3x - (-2 - x) + | 6 - 9 |

	(a) 3
	(b) 6
	(c) 9
	(d) 12

55. Find the slope and the y-intercept of the line given by the equation

2y - 3x = 10

	(a) 3/2 and (1 , 5)
	(b) 1/2 and (0 , 5)
	(c) 3/2 and (0 , 5)
	(d) 3/2 and (5 , 0)

56. Determining the probability of a coin landing heads up by actually tossing a coin several times is an example of _____.

	(a) theoretical probability
	(b) sample probability
	(c) outcome probability
	(d) experimental probability

57. A spinner numbered 1 through 10 is spun 100 times. The results of the experiment are shown in the table below. What is the experimental probability of spinning an 8?

	(a) 1/100
	(b) 13/100
	(c) 10/100
	(d) 7/100

58. An event with a probability of ______.

	(a) is very likely to occur
	(b) is not very likely to occur
	(c) cannot occur
	(d) is certain to occur

59. A randomly-thrown dart hits the dartboard shown. Find the probability of the dart landing in the shaded region.

	(a) 16/25
	(b) 14/25
	(c) 3/5
	(d) 1/2

60. Punnett squares can be used to predict the probability of:

	(a) being exposed to a contagious disease and contracting it
	(b) having an inherited disease or a genetically determined physical trait
	(c) both of the above
	(d) none of the above

61. apples fruit supermarket
novel book _______

	(a) bookstore
	(b) magazine
	(c) vegetable
	(d) shopping

62. tadpole frog amphibian
lamb sheep _______

	(a) anima
	(b) wool
	(c) farm
	(d) mammal

63. walk skip run
toss pitch _______

	(a) swerve
	(b) hurl
	(c) jump
	(d) dance

64. honeybee angel bat
kangaroo rabbit _______

	(a) mermaid
	(b) possum
	(c) grasshopper
	(d) sprinter

65. daisy flower plant
bungalow house _______

	(a) building
	(b) cottage
	(c) apartment
	(d) city

66. Nadia will be x years old y years from now. How old was she z years ago?

	(a) x + y + z
	(b) x + y – z
	(c) x – y – z
	(d) y – x – z

67. If a = b + 1/2 , b = 2c + 1/2, and c = 3d + 1/2, which of the following is an expression for d in terms of a?

	(a) (a - 2)/6
	(b) (2a - 3)/6
	(c) (2a - 3)/12
	(d) (3a - 2)/8

68. Anne drove for h hours at a constant rate of r miles per hour. How many miles did she go during the final 20 minutes of her drive?

	(a) 20r
	(b) hr/3
	(c) 3rh
	(d) r/3

69. At Central High School each student studies exactly one foreign language. Three-fifths of the students take Spanish, and one-fourth of the remaining students take Italian. If all of the others take French, what percent of the students take French?

	(a) 10
	(b) 15
	(c) 20
	(d) 30

70. From 2003 to 2004 the number of boys in the school chess club decreased by 20%, and the number of girls in the club increased by 20%. The ratio of girls to boys in the club in 2004 was how many times the ratio of girls to boys in the club in 2003?

	(a) 2/3
	(b) 4/5
	(c) 1
	(d) 3/2

71. Between 2010 and 2011 what is the total cut in the marketing budget across the 5 Brands (in €10,000s)?

	(a) 135
	(b) 400
	(c) 500
	(d) 1,135

72. Which Brand has suffered the largest percentage cut in its Marketing Budget?

	(a) Brand A
	(b) Brand B
	(c) Brand C
	(d) Brand D

73. Between 2010 and 2011 what has been the mean percentage Budget reduction for each of the 5 Brands (to 1 decimal place)?

	(a) 30.4%
	(b) 30.5%
	(c) 31.4%
	(d) 31.5%

74. In 2012 Brand A and Brand D are to have their number of staff reduced by the same percentage reduction seen by their Marketing Budgets between 2010 and 2011. If the number of staff at Brand A was originally 120 and the number of staff at Brand D triple this, what are the new reduced staff numbers for each Brand?

	(a) Can’t tell from the data
	(b) 35 (Brand A); 142 (Brand D)
	(c) 90 (Brand A); 252 (Brand D)
	(d) 60 (Brand A); 240 (Brand D)

75. The total 2011 Marketing Budget for all five Brands is to be cut by a quarter in 2012. In £, what is the 2012 Marketing Budget? (to the nearest £100,000)?

	(a) £3 million
	(b) £3.1 million
	(c) £5.2 million
	(d) £7.1 million

76. Which terminal had the highest number of passengers per week in Year 2?

	(a) Terminal A
	(b) Terminal B
	(c) Terminal C
	(d) Terminal D

77. For Year 1 what was the average weekly difference between male and female passengers per terminal?

	(a) 2,200 more males
	(b) 1,200 more males
	(c) 220 more females
	(d) 120 more males

78. Terminals A and D serve domestic flights, whilst Terminals B, C and E serve international flights. Each week on average how many more passengers in Year 1 took international flights compared to domestic flights (to the nearest 10,000)?

	(a) 14,000
	(b) 15,000
	(c) 140,000
	(d) 160,000

79. In Year 2 each passenger spends on average £4.25 in Terminal C’s shops. How much is the average weekly revenue for Terminal C’s shops in Year 2 (to the nearest £10,000)?

	(a) £4,400,000
	(b) £540,000
	(c) £54,000
	(d) £46,000

80. A competitor airport operator called Vefy Flights operates a different airport with half the average Year 1 weekly number of passengers operating from 3 terminals. What is Vefy Flights’s average weekly number of passengers per terminal (to the nearest 1,000)?

	(a) 110,000
	(b) 113,000
	(c) 133,000
	(d) 142,000

TOTAL