Model Test Paper 61

General Study Paper II

Fleas are perfectly designed by nature to feast on anything containing blood. Like a shark in the water or a wolf in the woods, fleas are ideally equipped to do what they do, making them very difficult to defeat. The bodies of these tiny parasites are extremely hardy and well-suited for their job. A flea has a very hard exoskeleton, which means the body is covered by a tough, tile-like plate called a sclerite. Because of these plates, fleas are almost impossible to squish. The exoskeletons of fleas are also waterproof and shock resistant, and therefore fleas are highly resistant to the sprays and chemicals used to kill them.

Little spines are attached to this plate. The spines lie flat against the flea’s thin, narrow body as the flea scurries through an animal’s fur in search of food. However, if anything (like fingers or a selfgrooming pet) tries to pull a flea off through the hair coat, these spines will extend and stick to the fur like Velcro.

Fleas are some of the best jumpers in the natural world. A flea can jump seven inches, or 150 times its own length, either vertically or horizontally. An equivalent jump for a person would be 555 feet, the height of the Washington Monument. Fleas can jump 30,000 times in a row without stopping, and they are able to accelerate through the air at an incredibly high rate—a rate which is over ten times what humans can withstand in an airplane.

Fleas have very long rear legs with huge thigh muscles and multiple joints. When they get ready to jump, they fold their long legs up and crouch like a runner on a starting block. Several of their joints contain a protein called resilin, which helps catapult fleas into the air as they jump, similar to the way a rubber band provides momentum to a slingshot. Outward facing claws on the bottom of their legs grip anything they touch when they land.

The adult female flea mates after her first blood meal and begins producing eggs in just 1 to 2 days. One flea can lay up to 50 eggs in one day and over 2,000 in her lifetime. Flea eggs can be seen with the naked eye, but they are about the size of a grain of salt. Shortly after being laid, the eggs begin to transform into cocoons. In the cocoon state, fleas are fully developed adults, and will hatch immediately if conditions are favorable. Fleas can detect warmth, movement, and carbon dioxide in exhaled breath, and these three factors stimulate them to emerge as new adults. If the flea does not detect appropriate conditions, it can remain dormant in the cocoon state for extended periods. Under ideal conditions, the entire life cycle may only take 3 weeks, so in no time at all, pets and homes can become infested. Because of these characteristics, fleas are intimidating opponents. The best way to control fleas, therefore, is to take steps to prevent an infestation from ever occurring.

1. The primary purpose of the passage is to

(a) educate the reader about the physical characteristics of fleas
(b) compare fleas to other members of the animal kingdom
(c) relate the problems that can result from a flea infestation
(d) explain why a flea infestation is hard to get rid of

2. The author’s tone in the passage is best described as

(a) concerned
(b) passionate
(c) informative
(d) opinionated

3. According to the passage, fleas are resistant to sprays and chemicals because they

(a) have waterproof sclerites
(b) are excellent jumpers
(c) reproduce very rapidly
(d) can stick to fur like Velcro

4. Fleas are difficult to squish because they have

I. sclerites
II. tough spines
III. resilin in their joints

(a) I only
(b) I and II only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II, and III

5. According to the passage, which of the following statements is true?

(a) Fleas extend their little spines if threatened
(b) Fleas have the ability to jump higher than humans
(c) Humans can jump higher if they consume foods containing resilin
(d) The resilin found in fleas is used to make rubber bands

6. According to the passage, fleas are able to jump

I. with a high rate of acceleration
II. up and down and from side to side
III. because the blood they eat contains resilin

(a) I only
(b) I and II only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II, and III

7. Based on information in the passage, the reader can understand that

(a) fleas will die without access to blood
(b) fleas survive at a higher rate in outdoor habitats
(c) fleas will die after they produce 2,000 eggs
(d) newly hatched fleas are the size of a grain of salt

8. The author mentions the Washington Monument in order to

(a) estimate the extreme distance that a flea is able to jump
(b) illustrate a comparison made between fleas and humans
(c) clarify a point made regarding fleas and acceleration
(d) demonstrate the superiority of fleas over humans

9. It can be inferred that fleas will emerge from eggs as adults

(a) when they outgrow the cocoon
(b) after a period of 3 weeks
(c) when they sense there is access to blood
(d) if there is too much carbon dioxide in the cocoon

10. Using the information in the passage as a guide, it can be concluded that

(a) humans do not possess the physical characteristics of the flea because they have no use for them
(b) humans do not pay much attention to fleas because they do not pose a serious threat
(c) fleas have many physical advantages, although these are outweighed by their many disadvantages
(d) fleas are designed in such a way as to give them unique physical advantages in life
In the 16th century, an age of great marine and terrestrial exploration, Ferdinand Magellan led the first expedition to sail around the world. As a young Portuguese noble, he served the king of Portugal, but he became involved in the quagmire of political intrigue at court and lost the king's favor. After he was dismissed from service by the king of Portugal, he offered to serve the future Emperor Charles V of Spain.

A papal decree of 1493 had assigned all land in the New World west of 50 degrees W longitude to Spain and all the land east of that line to Portugal. Magellan offered to prove that the East Indies fell under Spanish authority. On September 20, 1519, Magellan set sail from Spain with five ships. More than a year later, one of these ships was exploring the topography of South America in search of a water route across the continent. This ship sank, but the remaining four ships searched along the southern peninsula of South America. Finally they found the passage they sought near 50 degrees S latitude. Magellan named this passage the Strait of All Saints, but today it is known as the Strait of Magellan.

One ship deserted while in this passage and returned to Spain, so fewer sailors were privileged to gaze at that first panorama of the Pacific Ocean. Those who remained crossed the meridian now known as the International Date Line in the early spring of 1521 after 98 days on the Pacific Ocean. During those long days at sea, many of Magellan's men died of starvation and disease.

Later, Magellan became involved in an insular conflict in the Philippines and was killed in a tribal battle. Only one ship and 17 sailors under the command of the Basque navigator Elcano survived to complete the westward journey to Spain and thus prove once and for all that the world is round, with no precipice at the edge.

11. The 16th century was an age of great ______ exploration

(a) cosmic
(b) land
(c) mental
(d) common man

12. Magellan lost the favor of the king of Portugal when he became involved in a political ________

(a) entanglement
(b) discussion
(c) negotiation
(d) problem

13. The Pope divided New World lands between Spain and Portugal according to their location on one side or the other of an imaginary geographical line 50 degrees west of Greenwich that extends in a _________ direction.

(a) north and south
(b) crosswise
(c) easterly
(d) south east

14. One of Magellan's ships explored the _________ of South America for a passage across the continen

(a) coastline
(b) mountain range
(c) physical features
(d) islands

15. Four of the ships sought a passage along a southern ______

(a) coast
(b) inland
(c) body of land with water on three sides
(d) border

16. The passage was found near 50 degrees S of ________

(a) Greenwich
(b) The equator
(c) Spain
(d) Portugal

17. In the spring of 1521, the ships crossed the _______ now called the International Date Line

(a) imaginary circle passing through the poles
(b) imaginary line parallel to the equator
(c) area
(d) land mass
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a severe anxiety disorder that affects millions of people around the world. Individuals can develop PTSD after experiencing any event that results in psychological trauma. Symptoms of PTSD involve flashbacks to the traumatic event, nightmares, obsessive behavior, anger, insomnia, difficulty concentrating, and hypervigilance. Individuals who suffer from PTSD can experience significant difficulties in social relationships, have lower self-esteem, and have trouble maintaining employment. People with PTSD experience a higher risk of committing suicide, developing a drug addiction, and suffering from alcoholism. Although PTSD can affect any individual, military veterans are especially susceptible to this debilitating affliction. Furthermore, within this population, women are more than twice as likely as men to develop PTSD. Studies have also shown that former service women who do develop PTSD experience more severe symptoms than their male counterparts. Recent changes made by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs have improved treatment options for female veterans living with PTSD, but there is still more that needs to be done.

Although studies investigating precisely why women are more likely than men to experience PTSD have not yet been completed, some experts have theorized that low unit cohesion is a major factor. Unit cohesion, defined as the mutual bonds of friendship and support among members of a military unit, is thought to be helpful in reducing the incidence of developing PTSD. According to recent surveys compiled by U.S. Army researchers, increased unit cohesion emerged as the most important factor determining whether soldiers developed suicidal thoughts. Women are more likely than men to experience low unit cohesion for a variety of reasons. One of the most obvious factors is the relative paucity of females in the military; currently, women make up only 20% of the armed forces. Pervasive male prejudice against women is another factor that can diminish unit cohesion for female soldiers. Because women are less likely than men to experience unit cohesion while serving in the military, women are less likely to develop the social support structures that will help prevent them from developing PTSD, depression, or other serious mental health problems.

Another issue at play is the stigma amongst military personnel that asking for help for mental health issues makes one “weak.” A recent Department of Defense study of returning combat troops shows that only 1 in 6 veterans acknowledged themselves to be suffering from symptoms of PTSD, and 3 out of 5 veterans were convinced that their comrades and commanding officers would lose confidence in them if they sought treatment for mental health issues. For women, this hesitation to self-identify as a sufferer of PTSD could be even greater; historically, female soldiers have struggled to be counted as equals to men on the battlefield. Women, stereotypically considered to possess less emotional fortitude than men, may be unwilling to admit that they are suffering from PTSD lest they appear to conform to this stereotype. Unfortunately for those who do not seek help, when PTSD goes untreated it is very likely to worsen over time.

Another challenge is that until very recently, treatment for PTSD has been more difficult for women than men to obtain. Before rule changes were enacted in 2010, only veterans who encountered direct combat experience qualified to receive disability payments for PTSD. Because very few women are placed on the front lines, very few were eligible to receive free treatment for PTSD. However, recent regulation changes have ended these stipulations, allowing women who serve in any capacity to be eligible for benefits.

Even if female veterans are eligible for these benefits, the quality of the care a wartime PTSD sufferer receives can vary widely. The United States Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) pays disability benefits to service men and women who have been diagnosed with PTSD and also provides these individuals with free health care. But while mental health counseling that comes directly from VA doctors is completely free to veterans, there are often long waiting lists for those who need to be evaluated or treated. Therapy provided by non-VA professionals may not be covered by health insurance. Access to mental health professionals who have been specially trained to treat wartime PTSD is often difficult for those not living near major urban centers.

Perhaps the biggest impediment to achieving quality treatment for women suffering from wartime PTSD is a lack of research. While both the VA and independent agencies have completed hundreds of studies researching the prevention of and treatment for PTSD amongst general military populations, there have been no studies completed that solely target women. Before adequate care can be provided, there must be greater understanding about the root causes of this issue as it affects women specifically. On both the research level and the policy level, more must be done to help the women who have sacrificed so much for their country.

18. The primary purpose of the passage is to

(a) explain why military veterans are more likely than civilians to develop PTSD
(b) persuade government officials to increase funding for PTSD treatment centers in non-urban areas
(c) denounce the United States military for the way they have handled veterans’ mental health problems
(d) educate readers about the problem of insufficient treatment available for female veterans with PTSD

19. According to the passage, all of the following are reasons why females develop PTSD more frequently than males except

(a) women experience lower unit cohesion than men
(b) women can face negative stereotypes in the military
(c) women are more likely than men to suffer from depression
(d) males in the military greatly outnumber females

20. As used in paragraph 2, which is the best antonym for paucity?

(a) certainty
(b) audacity
(c) deference
(d) abundance

21. Based on information in the passage, it can be inferred that negative stereotypes about women in the military contribute to their increased likelihood to develop PTSD in which of the following ways?

I. Some male members of the armed forces subscribe to negative stereotypes about women; this prejudice may prevent women from forming close bonds with their units
II. Women may be less likely than men to admit to suffering from PTSD because they do not want to conform to stereotypes that portray women as weak
III. Women are aware of the negative stereotypes that pervade the military. This awareness may lead to a reduction in self-esteem

(a) l only
(b) II only
(c) I and II only
(d) II and III only

22. Based on information in the passage, which of the following statements best reflects the author’s opinion about the mental health care provided for female veterans?

(a) Although the VA has not done nearly enough, state and independent agencies have made up for government deficiencies
(b) The government has done almost nothing to help; the way we treat our female veterans is a national disgrace
(c) Because service women are more likely than service men to develop PTSD, mental health care has been better for female veterans
(d) The amount of care provided has improved over the past few years, but it is still insufficient

23. Which of the following pieces of evidence, if true, would best strengthen the author’s argument in paragraph 5?

(a) Since 2001, when operations in Iraq and Afghanistan began, more than 230,000 women have served in the United States Military
(b) Studies have shown that those who receive therapy for PTSD are less likely to commit suicide and develop substance abuse problems
(c) Women are 50% more likely to experience sexual assault while deployed than men
(d) Although experts now argue that intensive cognitive therapy is more effective at treating wartime PTSD than prescription drugs, most mental health professionals are trained only to offer pharmaceutical solutions for PTSD

24. In this paragraph, the author writes: “Access to mental health professionals who have been specially trained to treat wartime PTSD is often difficult for those not living near major urban centers.” Which of the following conjunctions, used at the beginning of this sentence, would best clarify the sentence’s role in the paragraph?

(a) Furthermore
(b) Incidentally
(c) Although
(d) Nevertheless

25. Based on information in the passage, it can be inferred that the author is most likely someone who

(a) does not believe women should be allowed to serve in the military
(b) is a mental health care professional
(c) has conducted studies on PTSD among veterans
(d) believes that advocating for others can lead to change

26. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

(a) Carrot
(b) Radish
(c) Potato
(d) Brinjal

27. Nicholas is wealthier than Scott but poorer than Leslie. leslie is poorer than Pamela and welathier than Barbara. Pamela is wealthier thanScott. If the first two statements are true, the third is

(a) false
(b) uncertain
(c) true

28. Richard is lazier than Brandon who is more industrious than Larry. Larry is lazier than Paul but more industrious than Todd. Todd is lazier than Brandon. If the first two statements are true, the thied is

(a) uncertain
(b) true
(c) false

29. Jonathan is more intelligent than Jeremy, who is more intelligent than Lola. Regina is less intelligent than Lola, who is more intelligent than Lena. Jonathan is more intelligent than both Lena and Regina. If the first two statements are true, the third is

(a) false
(b) uncertain
(c) true

30. Karen is more depressed than Carol, who is less depressed than Edward. Edward is more depressed than Paula, who is more depressed than Byron. Carol is more depressed than Byron. if the first two statements are true, the third is

(a) uncertain
(b) false
(c) true

31. Sarah is busier than Leo, who is busier than Harold. Harold is less busy than Peter and Paul. Sarah is busier than Paul. If the first two statements are true, the third is

(a) false
(b) uncertain
(c) true

32. Sally is more successful than Luke but less successful than Peter. Luke is less successful than Ronald, who is less successful than Mildred. Peter is less successful than Lildred. If the first two statements are true, the third is

(a) true
(b) false
(c) uncertain

33. Three unbiased coins are tossed. What is the probability of getting at most two heads?

(a) 3/4
(b) 1/4
(c) 3/8
(d) 7/8

34. A boatman goes 2 km against the current of the stream in 1 hour and goes 1 km along the current in 10 minutes. How long will it take to go 5 km in stationary water?

(a) 40 minutes
(b) 1 hour
(c) 1 hr 15 min
(d) 1 hr 30 min

35. An industrial loom weaves 0.128 metres of cloth every second. Approximately, how many seconds will it take for the loom to weave 25 metres of cloth?

(a) 178
(b) 195
(c) 204
(d) 488

36. Look carefully for the pattern, and then choose which pair of numbers comes next

42 40 38 35 33 31 28

(a) 25 22
(b) 26 23
(c) 26 24
(d) 25 23

37. Look carefully for the pattern, and then choose which pair of numbers comes next

6 10 14 18 22 26 30

(a) 36 40
(b) 33 37
(c) 38 42
(d) 34 38

38. A sum of money amounts to 9800 after 5 years and 12005 after 8 years at the same rate of simple interest. The rate of interest per annum is

(a) 5%
(b) 8%
(c) 12%
(d) 15%

39. Statements: National Aluminium Company has moved Georgia from a position of shortage to self-sufficiency in the metal


1. Previously, Georgia had to import aluminium
2. With this speed, it can soon become a foreign exchange earner

(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Both I and II follow

40. Statement: Should articles of only deserving authors be allowed to be published?


1. Yes. It will save a lot of paper which is in short supply
2. No. It is not possible to draw a line between the deserving and the undeserving

(a) Only argument I is strong
(b) Only argument II is strong
(c) Either I or II is strong
(d) Neither I nor II is strong

41. Statement: Should all the unauthorized structures in the city be demolished?


1. No. Where will the people residing in such houses live?
2. Yes. This will give a clear message to general public and they will refrain from constructing unauthorized buildings

(a) Only argument I is strong
(b) Only argument II is strong
(c) Either I or II is strong
(d) Neither I nor II is strong

42. Statement: Should there be a maximum limit for the number of ministers in the Central Government?


1. No. The political party in power should have the freedom to decide the number of ministers to be appointed
2. Yes. The number of ministers should be restricted to a certain percentage of the total number of seats in the parliament to avoid unnecessary expenditure

(a) Only argument I is strong
(b) Only argument II is strong
(c) Either I or II is strong
(d) Neither I nor II is strong
For questions 43 to 46 choose the answer which is a necessary part of the given word

43. school

(a) student
(b) report card
(c) test
(d) learning

44. pain

(a) cut
(b) burn
(c) nuisance
(d) hurt

45. gala

(a) celebration
(b) tuxedo
(c) appetizer
(d) orator

46. monopoly

(a) corrupt
(b) exclusive
(c) rich
(d) gigantic

47. Violating an Apartment Lease occurs when a tenant does something prohibited by the legally binding document that he or she has signed with a landlord. Which situation below is the best example of Violating an Apartment Lease?

(a) Tim has decided to move to another city, so he calls his landlord to tell him that he is not interested in renewing his lease when it expires next month
(b) Valerie recently lost her job and, for the last three months, has neglected to pay her landlord the monthly rent they agreed upon in writing when she moved into her apartment eight months ago
(c) Mark writes a letter to his landlord that lists numerous complaints about the apartment he has agreed to rent for two years
(d) Leslie thinks that her landlord is neglecting the building in which she rents an apartment. She calls her attorney to ask for advice

48. Look carefully at the sequence of symbols to find the pattern. Select correct pattern

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4


(a) 115
(b) 130
(c) 135
(d) 140

50. B2CD, _____, BCD4, B5CD, BC6D

(a) B2C2D
(b) BC3D
(c) B2C3D
(d) BCD7

51. Read the below passage carefully and answer the questions

The government of an island nation is in the process of deciding how to spend its limited income. It has $7 million left in its budget and eight programs to choose among. There is no provision in the constitution to have a surplus, and each program has requested the minimum amount they need; in other words, no program may be partially funded. The programs and their funding requests are

* Hurricane preparedness: $2.5 million
* Harbor improvements: $1 million
* School music program: $0.5 million
* Senate office building remodeling: $1.5 million
* Agricultural subsidy program: $2 million
* National radio: $0.5 million
* Small business loan program: $3 million
* International airport: $4 million

Senators from urban areas are very concerned about assuring that there will be funding for a new international airport. Senators from rural areas refuse to fund anything until money for agricultural subsidies is appropriated. If the legislature funds these two programs, on which of the following could they spend the rest of the money?

(a) the school music program and national radio
(b) hurricane preparedness
(c) harbor improvements and the school music program
(d) small business loan program

52. If the legislature decides to fund the agricultural subsidy program, national radio, and the small business loan program, what two other programs could they fund?

(a) harbor improvements and international airport
(b) harbor improvements and school music program
(c) harbor improvements and school music program
(d) hurricane preparedness and international airport

53. If the legislature decides to fund the agricultural subsidy program, national radio, and the small business loan program, the only other single program that can be funded is

(a) hurricane preparedness
(b) harbor improvements
(c) school music program
(d) senate office building remodeling

54. FAG, GAF, HAI, IAH, ____

(a) JAK
(b) HAL
(c) HAK
(d) JAI

55. ELFA, GLHA, ILJA, _____, MLNA

(a) OLPA
(b) KLMA
(c) LLMA
(d) KLLA
Read the below passage carefully and answer the questions

Five cities all got more rain than usual this year. The five cities are: Last Stand, Mile City, New Town, Olliopolis, and Polberg. The cities are located in five different areas of the country: the mountains, the forest, the coast, the desert, and in a valley. The rainfall amounts were: 12 inches, 27 inches, 32 inches, 44 inches, and 65 inches

* The city in the desert got the least rain; the city in the forest got the most rain
* New Town is in the mountains
* Last Stand got more rain than Olliopolis
* Mile City got more rain than Polberg, but less rain than New Town
* Olliopolis got 44 inches of rain
* The city in the mountains got 32 inches of rain; the city on the coast got 27 inches of rain

56. Which city got the most rain?

(a) Last Stand
(b) Mile City
(c) New Town
(d) Olliopolis

57. How much rain did Mile City get?

(a) 12 inches
(b) 27 inches
(c) 32 inches
(d) 44 inches

58. Which city is in the desert ?

(a) Last Stand
(b) Mile City
(c) New Town
(d) Polberg

59. Where is Olliopolis located?

(a) the mountains
(b) the coast
(c) in a valley
(d) the desert

60. If the expenditures in 1996 and 1999 are equal, then the approximate ratio of the income in 1996 and 1999 respectively is?

(a) 1:1
(b) 2:3
(c) 13:14
(d) 9:10

61. If the income in 1998 was 264 what was the expenditure in 1998?

(a) 104
(b) 145
(c) 160
(d) 185

62. In which year is the expenditure minimum?

(a) 2000
(b) 1997
(c) 1996
(d) Cannot be determined

63. If the profit in 1999 was 4 what was the profit in 2000?

(a) 4.2
(b) 6.6
(c) 6.8
(d) Cannot be determined

64. What is the average profit earned for the given years?

(a) 50(2/3)
(b) 55(5/6)
(c) 60(1/6)
(d) 335

65. What percent of total spending is spent on Tennis?

(a) 12.5%
(b) 22.5%
(c) 25%
(d) 45%

66. How much percent more is spent on Hockey than that on Golf?

(a) 27%
(b) 35%
(c) 37.5%
(d) 75%

67. If the total amount spent on sports during the year be Rs. 1,80,00,000 , the amount spent on Basketball exceeds on Tennis by

(a) Rs. 2,50,000
(b) Rs. 3,60,000
(c) Rs. 3,75,000
(d) Rs. 4,10,000

68. How much percent less is spent on Football than that on Cricket?

(a) 22 2/9%
(b) 27%
(c) 33 1/3%
(d) 37 1/7%

69. Statement: A large number of people in ward X of the city are diagnosed to be suffering from a fatal malaria type

Courses of Action

1. The city municipal authority should take immediate steps to carry out extensive fumigation in ward X
2. The people in the area should be advised to take steps to avoid mosquito bites

(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Both I and II follow

70. Statement: Severe drought is reported to have set in several parts of the country

Courses of Action

1. Government should immediately make arrangement for providing financial assistance to those affected
2. Food, water and fodder should immediately be sent to all these areas to save the people and cattle

(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Neither I nor II follows
The music industry continues to be one of the fastest growing sectors of the British ecomomy. This trend can be traced to the large range of medias available, such as concerts and downloads, and the wide ranging target audience. For example, the music industry confidently boasts to be the only form of media enjoyed by both the youngest and oldest individuals in society.

In comparisio, forms of media, such as gaming, are enjoyed by a marginal secotr of society. However, statistics suggest that not all forms of music are enjoying this boom. Sales figures for operatic music continue to decrease steadily. In this way, it is feared that the dominance of the music industry, catering to popular culture, comes at the expense of long-standing art forms.

71. Why is the music industry the fastest growing sector in the British economy?

(a) It caters to a wide target audience
(b) It is enjoyed by a marginal sector of society
(c) It is a long=standing art form
(d) Operatic music is finally dying out
'Dumbards' champagne house, a company based in the south of France, employ local workers only. The reason behind this policy is that Dumbards promote their products as home-crafted, 'lovingly-made'. They believe that by employing local workers, their products appear more exclusive, and therefore more expensive. In recruiting its workers, Dumbards place advertisement in the local newspaper and shop windows. They are heavily sceptical about the internet and refuse to advertise on it.

Another way in which Dumbards recruit their staff is via recommendations from current employees. In September last year, the company was taken over by an American businessman who is keen to rebrand the company. He wants Dumbards to be more metropolitan and intends to open the selection process to workers form otherr EU countries. This idea has been controversial and may lead to strike action by current employees.

72. Which one of the following statement is true?

(a) Dumbards employ local workers as it is cheaper
(b) Dumbards refuse to use internet advertising due to bad experiences
(c) Dumbards relu exclusively on recommendations from current employees
(d) Dumbards only employ local workers to appear exclusive
The colour of a product's packaging often denotes what is inside of it. The most common example of this can be seen in the flavours of crisps. For example, the colour red commonly denotes ready salted whereas blue is often cheese and onion. The colour coding, of product packaging can also be seen in cleaning products, with lemon yellow packaging or apple green.

In addition to the packaging of products, the choice of colour can also represent emotion (with red as sensual, or black for mourning), instructions (such as genn for go), and gender (with blue and pink). In this way, the colour of the world around us can often be a helpful message. However, these 'colour codes' are often dependent to a particular culture they are formed in and may not be universal.

73. Which one of the following options is incorrect?

(a) The colour of packaging can indicate what the product is
(b) The product's packaging colour may depend on culture
(c) The colour of a product's packaging tends to be universal
(d) 'Colour coding' is seen in foods, cleaning products and traffic signals
Over half the population of the UK take a form of food supplement daily. Food supplements, such as vitamin c, are said to make up for a lack of nutrients in an individual's diet. An example of this can be seen with vegetarianism. Vegetarians are recommended to take iron supplements to make-up for a lack of iron, most commonly found in neat products. Such an addition can prevent common problems associated with vegetarinism, such as anaemia.

Statistics suggest that the most popular food supplement in the UK is multi-vitamins, with two thirds of people adding multi-vitamins to their diet, Iron tablets are the second most popular daily supplement. However, such supplements are not intended to replace a balanced diet.

74. Which one of the following statements is true?

(a) Food supplements can aid weight loss
(b) Half the UK population take multivitamin daily
(c) Supplements are becoming increasingly popular
(d) Supplements are not intended to replace a balanced diet
'Apple Marie' is a company which makes ready-made desserts, such as fruit pies and cheesecakes. These desserts are sold in supermarkets all over the country, and are advertised on national television and in cooking magazines. Apple Marie's most popular product is home-made cherry pie. Sales from this item make up thirty per cent of the company's revenue.

The directors of the company wish to increase the sales of their other products in the same way. They have recently hired an advertising consultant, who intends to increase the sales of the company by creating lwo fat versions of traditional favourites. These products will be advertised as 'Half-baked Apple Marie', as they will have under half the amount of fats and sugars as the traditional product. The Half-baked Apple Marie range will be on sale for a trial period of four weeks.

75. Which one of the following statements is true?Select the closest answer.

(a) Half-baked products have half the sugars of traditional products
(b) Half-baked products required baking at home
(c) Half-baked products have under half the amount of fat of traditional products
(d) Half-baked products will be on slae for a trial period, at half price
The following bar graph shows the Income and Expenditures (in million US $) of five companies in the year 2001. The percent profit or loss of a company is given by

76. The companies M and N together had a percentage of profit/loss of?

(a) 12% loss
(b) 10% loss
(c) 10% profit
(d) There was no loss or profit

77. In 2001, what was the approximate percentage of profit/loss of all the five Companies taken together?

(a) 5% profit
(b) 6.5% profit
(c) 4% loss
(d) 7% loss

78. Which company earned the maximum percentage profit in the year 2001?

(a) M
(b) N
(c) P
(d) Q

79. For Company R, if the expenditure had increased by 20% in year 2001 from year 2000 and the company had earned profit of 10% in 2000, what was the Company's income in 2000 (in million US $)?

(a) 35.75
(b) 37.25
(c) 38.5
(d) 41.25

80. If the income of Company Q in 2001 was 10% more than its income in 2000 and the Company had earned a profit of 20% in 2000, then its expenditure in 2000 (in million US $) was?

(a) 28.28
(b) 30.30
(c) 32.32
(d) 34.34